Sunday, October 11, 2020

What Does "Born of Water and the Spirit" Mean?

 

One of the passages that some Christians appeal to in order to support baptismal regeneration is John 3:5 which has Jesus saying, "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God."

Maybe baptismal regeneration is true, but opponents of the doctrine (like myself) explore alternative interpretations. The following links provide some (of many) alternative interpretations that make baptismal regeneration less likely the correct interpretation. They may or may not be consistent with each other.

- Messianic Jew Arnold Fruchtenbaum argued that in Jewish understanding at the time of the first century there were at least 6 ways in which people could be "Born Again"; and that the different ways make it unlikely that baptismal regeneration is the correct interpretation of John 3:5. See his 4th lecture in his Jewish Life of Christ. He begins his comments on baptism and being "Born Again" at 26 minutes and 44 seconds. I've linked to all 21 lectures in my blogpost HERE. A direct link to the 4th lecture can be found and downloaded HERE.


- Michael Heiser suggests that the water mentioned in John 3:5 is an allusion to the Exodus. See his podcast linked BELOW:
https://nakedbiblepodcast.com/podcast/naked-bible-330-the-exodus-and-john-35/






Wednesday, May 6, 2020

Wednesday, December 4, 2019

Does The Great Commission of Matt. 28:18-20 Contradict Acts?


Skeptics like to argue that the Great Commission of Matthew 28:18-20 contradicts Acts because the church in Acts apparently didn't know that the Gospel was meant to go out to all the Gentile world. That's ridiculous since Acts was written by Luke and as a companion to his Gospel where he clearly teaches Jesus intended and taught His disciples that the Gospel was eventually to go out to the Gentiles/Goyim. All four canonical Gospel teach that. Regarding the Lukan corpus, see Luke 2:32 which quotes the Old Testament that the Messiah would be a "light to the Gentiles". Something which is taught in many Old Testament prophecies regarding how the Messiah would affect/touch the Gentile world. Even to the point of converting them to the knowledge of the true God of Israel. Michael L. Brown is considered by most to be foremost Messianic Jewish Apologist who deals with apologetics in relation to the Jewish people. In his lectures and books he repeatedly exegetes the Old Testament on how it prophecies that the Messiah would be the Savior of the world. See for example his lecture series on Youtube titled, "Answering Your Toughest Questions with Dr. Michael Brown".

However, another way to resolve the problem is by pointing out that the Greek word "nations" in Matt. 28:19 is ambiguous given its Jewish use by Jesus. The word can mean 1. to all the Gentile world, OR 2. "all the tribes of the land". J. Stuart Russell points this out in his book The Parousia:

 It is usual to regard this commission as if it were addressed to the whole Christian Church in all ages. No doubt it is allowable to infer from these words the perpetual obligation resting upon all Christians in all times, to propagate the Gospel among all nations ; but it is important to consider the words in their proper and original reference. It is Christ's commission to His chosen messengers, designating them to their evangelistic work, and assuring them of His constant presence and protection. It has a special application to the apostles which it cannot have to any others. We have already adverted to the fact that the disciples, to whom this charge was given, do not seem to have understood it as directing them to extend their evangelistic labours beyond the bounds of Palestine, or to preach the Gospel to Jews and Gentiles indiscriminately. It is certain that they did not immediately, nor yet for years, act upon this commission in its largest sense ; nor does it seem probable that they would ever have done so without an express revelation. As Dr. Burton has shown, no less than fifteen years elapsed between the conversion of St. Paul and his first apostolic journey to preach among the Gentiles. "Nor is there any evidence that during that period the other apostles passed the confines of Judaea." (4) There is much probability therefore in the opinion that the language of the apostolic commission did not convey to their minds the same idea that it does to us, and that, as we have already seen, the phrase 'all the nations ' [pa,nta ta. e[qnj] is really equivalent to 'all the tribes of the land.' [source]


While I lean toward partial preterism, I don't fully agree with Russell's statement here. Russell's book is more preteristic than partial preterism, but not as exhaustive as full preterism. The main point I cite this passage is to point out that the church may not have fully grasped the meaning and implications of Jesus' statement regarding the "nations" in Matt. 28:19. Only upon later reflection did they see and realized that He intended the Gospel to be preached to all Gentiles. But their biases and racial/ethnic and religious prejudices might have prevented them from grasping that fuller meaning for a time. One would have to read more fully Russell's book to appreciate the weight of this point about "nations" meaning "all the tribes of the land".  Even the quote I cited alludes to his previous comments on the topic earlier in his book. For example HERE.

Also where he write:

(2) There is great probability in the opinion that the phrase ' all the nations ' is equivalent to 'all the tribes of the land' (Matt. xxiv. 30). There is no impropriety in designating the tribes as nations. The promise of God to Abraham was that he should be the father of many nations (Gen. xvii. 5; Rom. iv. 17, 18).

     In our Lord's time it was usual to speak of the inhabitants of Palestine as consisting of several nations. Josephus speaks of ' the nation of the Samaritans,' 'the nation of the Batanaeans,' ' the nation of the Galileans,'-- using the very word (etnoj) which we find in the passage before us. Judea, was a distinct nation, often with a king of its own; so also was Samaria; and so with Idumea, Galilee, Paraea, Batanea, Trachonitis, Ituraea, Abilene,-- all of which had at different times princes with the title of Ethnarch, a name which signifies the ruler of a nation. It is doing no violence, then, to the language to understand (pa,nta ta. e;nh ) as referring, to 'all the nations' of Palestine, or ' all the tribes of the land.'

(3) This view receives strong confirmation from the fact that the same phrase in the apostolic commission (Matt. xxviii.19), 'Go and teach all the nations,' does not seem to have been understood by the disciples as referring to the whole population of the globe, or to any nations beyond Palestine. It is commonly supposed that the apostles knew that they had received a charge to evangelise the world. If they did know it, they were culpably remiss in not acting upon it. But it is presumable that the words of our Lord (lid not convey any such idea to their mind. The learned Professor Burton observes : "It was not until fourteen years after our Lord's ascension that St. Paul travelled -for the first time, and preached the gospel to the Gentiles. Nor is there any evidence that during that period the other apostles passed the confines of Judea.' (1)

     The fact seems to be that the language of the apostolic commission did not convey to the minds of the apostles any such ecumenical ideas. Nothing more astonished them than the discovery that 'God had granted to the Gentiles also repentance unto life' (Acts xi. 18). When St. Peter was challenged for going in 'to men uncircumcised, and eating with them,' it does not appear that he vindicated his conduct by an appeal to the terms of the apostolic commission. If the phrase ' all the nations' had been understood by the disciples in its literal and most comprehensive sense, it is difficult to imagine bow they could have failed to recognise ,it once the universal character of the gospel, and their commission to preach it alike to Jew and Gentile. It required a distinct revelation from heaven to overcome the Jewish prejudices of the apostles, and to make known to them the mystery 'that the Gentiles should be fellow-heirs, and of the same body, and partakers of the promise in Christ by the gospel ' (Ephes. iii. 6).

     In view of these considerations we hold it reasonable and warrantable to give the phrase ' all the nations' a restricted signification, and to limit it to the nations of Palestine. In this sense it harmonises well with the words of our Lord, " Ye shall not have gone over the cities of Israel till the Son of man be come' (Matt. x. 23). [source]

Friday, October 25, 2019

Regarding Jesus' Human Origins


As a Trinitarian I believe in Jesus' preexistence prior to His conception and birth. This blogpost deals with questions regarding Jesus human origins. Many atheists and skeptics question things like whether Jesus was really born in Bethlehem or whether there was a place called Nazareth during the time Jesus is said to have lived. I'll add links and resources as I find them regarding these types of issues.

Did Nazareth Exist? by Bart Ehrman

Was Jesus from Nazareth or was he from Bethlehem? by Craig Keener



Tuesday, May 7, 2019

Who Killed Goliath? A Question of Source Criticism


The following is my response to a common set of objections about the story of David that I repeatedly notice in Facebook groups. In purple is the set of objections. My response is below in black.

Who Killed Goliath? A Question of Source Criticism:
David and Goliath is a well-known story. The general storyline is simple. David is a "youth" who is untrained in warfare (v 33, 42). The giant Goliath comes out to challenge someone to fight him. David takes the challenge, hits Goliath square in the head with a stone, kills him, and then decapitates him.
However, as it often is with the Bible, things aren't that simple. It appears this story is a doublet: one of two stories about David's rise to be in Saul's court. The other is in 1 Samuel 16.
In 1 Samuel 16, David is brought in to play the harp for Saul. David is introduced to Saul and is described as "a man of valor, a man of war," (v. 17) and is later taken into Saul's service as his armor bearer. Saul "loved him greatly." (v. 21-22)
But then in 1 Samuel 17, David is a youth and not a warrior at all. Even more confusing, why is David not at war with Saul as his armor bearer? Worse yet, why would Saul ask "whose son is this youth," "Inquire whose son the boy is," and "whose son are you, young man?" (v. 55-58) Didn't he know David? Apparently not.
Perhaps one could argue this was in reverse, 1 Samuel 17 was actually a story from BEFORE 1 Samuel 16. But this wouldn't make sense either. David became Saul's son in law and a leader in his kingdom! (v. 25, 18:17-19)

These two stories are in complete conflict.
But complicating things further, there's another Biblical claimant to be Goliath's killer!

2 Samuel 21:19 "...Elhanan son of Jaare-oregim the Bethlehemite killed Goliath the Gittite. The shaft of his spear was like a weaver’s beam."
So who killed Goliath? Chronicles tried to cover this up by saying Elhanan killed the BROTHER of Goliath, but that's a clear textual interpolation from a text AFTER the Exile... At least 500 years after David.
This is a classic case of source criticism. Whoever was compiling the Deuteronomistic History (Deuteronomy - 2 Kings) was working with multiple sources that were combined. They're even named in various parts. This causes minor or even major discrepancies like this, and it helps us better understand the composition of the Bible.

1. While I believe in Biblical Inerrancy, the truth of Christianity doesn't hinge on Inerrancy. Christianity could still be true even if there were minor errors in the Bible.

2. Regarding 2 Sam. 21:19 the text is corrupted. Textual corruption is not inconsistent with the historical doctrine of Inerrancy. Notice the parallel passage in 1 Chron. 20:5. I'll post them next to each other. First Chron. 20:5 preserves the datum that Elhanan killed the BROTHER of Goliath, and not Goliath himself.   

And there was again war with the Philistines at Gob, and Elhanan the son of Jaare-oregim, the Bethlehemite, struck down Goliath the Gittite, the shaft of whose spear was like a weaver’s beam.- 2 Sam. 21:19

And there was again war with the Philistines, and Elhanan the son of Jair struck down Lahmi the brother of Goliath the Gittite, the shaft of whose spear was like a weaver’s beam.- 1 Chron. 20:5

Here's what some commentaries say:

John Gill's Exposition of the Entire Bible:
//where Elhanan the son of Jaareoregim, a Bethlehemite, slew the brother of Goliath the Gittite; the word "brother" is rightly supplied from 1 Chronicles 20:5; where his name is said to be Lahmi, for not Goliath himself was slain, though some so interpret it, and take Elhanan to be David; so Jarchi, and with which agrees the Targum; but he was slain not at Gob, but in the valley of Elah, nor had David any such name as Elhanan; he was one of David's worthies, 2 Samuel 23:24; where he is called the son of Dodo, and in 1 Chronicles 20:5, the son of Jair; and Lahmi there may not be the name of Goliath's brother, but, as here, the country name of Elhanan; for the words (z) there may be rendered,"and Elhanan the son of Jair, the Lehemite (i.e. the Bethlehemite), slew the brother of Goliath the Gittite,''and so perfectly agrees, with this:

the staff of whose spear was like a weaver's beam; not of Goliath's brother, but of Goliath himself, 1 Samuel 17:7.//

Adam Clarke's Commentary states:
//Elhanan the son of Jaare-oregim - slew - Goliath the Gittite - Here is a most manifest corruption of the text, or gross mistake of the transcriber; David, not Elhanan, slew Goliath. In 1 Chronicles 20:5, the parallel place, it stands thus: "Elhanan, the son of Jair, slew Lahmi, the brother of Goliath the Gittite, whose spear-staff was like a weaver's beam." This is plain; and our translators have borrowed some words from Chronicles to make both texts agree. The corruption may be easily accounted for by considering that ארגים oregim, which signifies weavers, has slipped out of one line into the other; and that בית הלחמי beith hallachmi, the Beth-lehemite, is corrupted from את לחמי eth Lachmi; then the reading will be the same as in Chronicles. Dr. Kennicott has made this appear very plain in his First Dissertation on the Hebrew Text, p. 78, etc.//

3. //So who killed Goliath? Chronicles tried to cover this up by saying Elhanan killed the BROTHER of Goliath, but that's a clear textual interpolation from a text AFTER the Exile... At least 500 years after David.//

How do you know it's a "clear textual interpolation"? What's the evidence?

4. //David and Goliath is a well-known story. The general storyline is simple. David is a "youth" who is untrained in warfare (v 33, 42). //

It's not clear that 1 Sam. 17:33, 42 states that David is not a warrior. That's an unnecessary inference. The verses merely contrast David's youth with Goliath's status as a seasoned warrior. Moreover, if you take 1 Sam. 16:18 literally, then David was "a man of valor, a man of war" [i.e. a warrior]. Though, it's possible that 1 Sam. 16:18 was hyperbole on the part of Saul's servant who spoke and not literal (e.g. referring to David's courage/bravery).

5. //and is later taken into Saul's service as his armor bearer. Saul "loved him greatly." (v. 21-22)//

//Worse yet, why would Saul ask "whose son is this youth," "Inquire whose son the boy is," and "whose son are you, young man?" (v. 55-58) Didn't he know David? Apparently not.//

21 And David came to Saul and entered his service. And Saul loved him greatly, and he became his armor-bearer.22 And Saul sent to Jesse, saying, "Let David remain in my service, for he has found favor in my sight."- 1 Sam. 16:21-22

Saul as King would have had multiple servants, musicians and armor-bearers. You wouldn't expect a King [or a modern day president or prime minister] to know all his assistants/servants by name and intimately. When it says Saul loved David greatly, it might merely mean that he enjoyed David's music and service so much that he instructed one of his servants to notify Jesse that the King wanted to take David into his service for a while. None of that requires Saul to have known David personally and intimately.

An added fact that can help explain Saul's lack of recognition is that David was growing. A boy without a beard will look vastly different once he starts maturing and developing a masculine physique and facial hair. Even hair color can change with age.

6. //Even more confusing, why is David not at war with Saul as his armor bearer? //

David's service as one of Saul's armor-bearers may have been temporary.

7. //Perhaps one could argue this was in reverse, 1 Samuel 17 was actually a story from BEFORE 1 Samuel 16. But this wouldn't make sense either. David became Saul's son in law and a leader in his kingdom! (v. 25, 18:17-19)//

That the story in 1 Sam. 17 may have occurred before 1 Sam. 16 is a legitimate possibility. Not all of the Biblical stories are chronologically recorded. So, that would solve some of the difficulties that were brought up earlier. That the stories may be chronologically reversed was something I was going to bring up earlier, but I figured it would be easier to address the apparent contradictions directly as if chapter 16 & 17 were chronological. It's argued that they couldn't be reversed because David became Saul's son-in-law. But David didn't IMMEDIATELY become Saul's son in law and a leader in his kingdom. That must be assumed in order to maintain the apparent contradiction. Reading chapter 18 (the next chapter) shows that David didn't immediately rise to prominence to rival Saul. It was a relatively quick ascendancy, but it still took time.